| Exam Name | Certified Midwife Practice Exam (NARM & AMCB) |
|---|---|
| Exam Providers | North American Registry of Midwives (NARM) & American Midwifery Certification Board (AMCB) |
| Exam Type | Professional Certification Exam (Midwifery & Maternal-Newborn Care) |
| Total Practice Questions | 120+ Practice Questions (MCQs + Clinical Scenarios + Emergency Care) – Updated for 2026 |
| Coverage Topics | • Prenatal Care & Assessment (Gestational Age, Screening, Risk Factors) • Maternal Physiology & Hormonal Changes • Labor & Delivery (Stages of Labor, Fetal Monitoring, Positions) • Intrapartum Complications (Dystocia, Fetal Distress, Cord Prolapse) • Postpartum Care (Lochia, Uterine Involution, Mental Health) • Newborn Care (Apgar, Reflexes, Feeding, Thermoregulation) • Pharmacology (Oxytocin, Magnesium Sulfate, Tocolytics, Vaccines) • Obstetric Emergencies (Hemorrhage, Eclampsia, Neonatal Resuscitation) • Infection Control & Screening (TORCH, GBS, Chorioamnionitis) • Ethics, Legal Practice & Patient-Centered Care |
| Question Format | • Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) • Case-Based Clinical Scenarios • Emergency & Decision-Making Questions • Applied Pharmacology and Newborn Care Questions |
| Difficulty Level | Intermediate to Advanced (Aligned with Real NARM & AMCB Certification Exams) |
| Skills Developed | • Clinical decision-making during labor and delivery • Maternal and fetal assessment skills • Identification and management of obstetric complications • Newborn evaluation and early care techniques • Safe medication use in maternal care • Emergency response and risk management • Ethical, legal, and patient-centered practice |
| Study Tips | • Focus on recognizing complications (preeclampsia, hemorrhage, fetal distress) • Practice fetal heart rate interpretation patterns • Review medication uses and contraindications • Understand stages of labor and clinical interventions • Study newborn assessment (Apgar, reflexes, vitals) • Strengthen clinical reasoning with case-based scenarios |
| Best For | Midwifery students, nurse-midwives, and professionals preparing for NARM and AMCB certification exams |
| Updated | 2026 Latest Version |
1. Prenatal Care
What is the most accurate method for estimating gestational age?
A. Fundal height
B. Last menstrual period (LMP)
C. First-trimester ultrasound
D. Quickening
Answer: C
Rationale: First-trimester ultrasound provides the most precise dating due to minimal fetal variation early in pregnancy.
2. Prenatal Assessment
A normal fetal heart rate range is:
A. 90–110 bpm
B. 110–160 bpm
C. 160–190 bpm
D. 80–100 bpm
Answer: B
Rationale: Normal baseline fetal heart rate is 110–160 bpm; deviations may indicate distress.
3. Physiology
Which hormone maintains pregnancy in early gestation?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Oxytocin
D. Prolactin
Answer: B
Rationale: Progesterone supports the uterine lining and prevents contractions.
4. Nutrition
In pregnancy, increased folic acid intake helps prevent:
A. Anemia
B. Neural tube defects
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes
Answer: B
Rationale: Folic acid reduces the risk of neural tube defects like spina bifida.
5. Screening
The glucose challenge test screens for:
A. Preeclampsia
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Anemia
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It identifies abnormal glucose metabolism during pregnancy.
6. Intrapartum Care
The first stage of labor ends when:
A. Contractions begin
B. Cervix is fully dilated
C. Baby is delivered
D. Placenta is delivered
Answer: B
Rationale: Stage 1 ends at 10 cm dilation.
7. Labor Monitoring
Late decelerations indicate:
A. Head compression
B. Cord compression
C. Uteroplacental insufficiency
D. Normal pattern
Answer: C
Rationale: Late decels are associated with fetal hypoxia.
8. Delivery
The cardinal movement after engagement is:
A. Extension
B. Internal rotation
C. Descent
D. Expulsion
Answer: C
Rationale: Descent follows engagement as the fetus moves through the pelvis.
9. Pain Management
Non-pharmacologic pain relief includes:
A. Epidural
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Breathing techniques
D. Opioids
Answer: C
Rationale: Breathing, positioning, and massage are common non-drug methods.
10. Postpartum
Normal postpartum bleeding is called:
A. Lochia
B. Hemorrhage
C. Discharge
D. Effusion
Answer: A
Rationale: Lochia is normal uterine discharge after birth.
11. Newborn Care
Apgar score assesses:
A. Gestational age
B. Newborn adaptation
C. Birth weight
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It evaluates heart rate, respiration, tone, reflexes, and color.
12. Pharmacology
Oxytocin is used to:
A. Stop labor
B. Induce or augment labor
C. Reduce pain
D. Prevent infection
Answer: B
Rationale: Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions.
13. Complications
Preeclampsia is characterized by:
A. Low BP
B. High BP and proteinuria
C. Fever
D. Bleeding
Answer: B
Rationale: It involves hypertension and organ dysfunction.
14. Emergency
First step in managing postpartum hemorrhage:
A. Surgery
B. Uterine massage
C. Antibiotics
D. IV fluids only
Answer: B
Rationale: Uterine massage helps contract the uterus and reduce bleeding.
15. Newborn
Normal newborn respiratory rate:
A. 10–20
B. 30–60
C. 60–90
D. 90–120
Answer: B
Rationale: Newborns typically breathe 30–60 times per minute.
16. Breastfeeding
Colostrum is rich in:
A. Fat
B. Antibodies
C. Sugar
D. Water
Answer: B
Rationale: It provides immunological protection.
17. Infection
Group B strep screening occurs at:
A. 10 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 35–37 weeks
D. Postpartum
Answer: C
Rationale: Screening late in pregnancy guides intrapartum antibiotics.
18. Labor
Active labor typically begins at:
A. 2 cm
B. 4–6 cm dilation
C. 8 cm
D. 10 cm
Answer: B
Rationale: Active labor involves faster dilation.
19. Fetal Position
LOA position means:
A. Left occiput anterior
B. Right occiput posterior
C. Breech
D. Transverse
Answer: A
Rationale: It is the most favorable fetal position.
20. Ethics
Informed consent requires:
A. Physician approval
B. Patient understanding and agreement
C. Written signature only
D. Family consent
Answer: B
Rationale: Patients must understand risks, benefits, and alternatives.
21. Postpartum
Uterine involution refers to:
A. Growth
B. Shrinking of uterus
C. Infection
D. Bleeding
Answer: B
Rationale: The uterus returns to pre-pregnancy size.
22. Newborn
Vernix caseosa functions to:
A. Increase temperature
B. Protect skin
C. Aid breathing
D. Prevent crying
Answer: B
Rationale: It protects and moisturizes newborn skin.
23. Complications
Placenta previa presents with:
A. Painful bleeding
B. Painless bleeding
C. No bleeding
D. Fever
Answer: B
Rationale: It typically causes painless vaginal bleeding.
24. Labor
Second stage of labor ends with:
A. Full dilation
B. Birth of baby
C. Placenta delivery
D. Contractions
Answer: B
Rationale: Stage 2 is from full dilation to delivery.
25. Pharmacology
Magnesium sulfate is used for:
A. Pain relief
B. Seizure prevention
C. Inducing labor
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It prevents eclamptic seizures.
26. Newborn
Normal newborn weight loss after birth:
A. 1–2%
B. 5–10%
C. 15–20%
D. 25%
Answer: B
Rationale: Up to 10% loss is normal in first days.
27. Screening
Rh incompatibility is prevented with:
A. Iron
B. Rh immunoglobulin
C. Insulin
D. Antibiotics
Answer: B
Rationale: Prevents maternal antibody formation.
28. Labor Monitoring
Variable decelerations indicate:
A. Placental insufficiency
B. Cord compression
C. Normal labor
D. Maternal hypotension
Answer: B
Rationale: Caused by umbilical cord compression.
29. Postpartum
Baby blues typically occur:
A. Immediately
B. 2–5 days postpartum
C. 2 months later
D. During pregnancy
Answer: B
Rationale: Common emotional changes occur early postpartum.
30. Professional Practice
Midwives must prioritize:
A. Hospital policy
B. Patient-centered care
C. Speed
D. Cost
Answer: B
Rationale: Care should focus on patient safety, autonomy, and well-being.
31. Prenatal Care
A pregnant client at 10 weeks presents with severe nausea and weight loss. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Normal morning sickness
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Preeclampsia
D. GERD
Answer: B
Rationale: Severe vomiting with weight loss and dehydration suggests hyperemesis gravidarum.
32. Physiology
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is primarily responsible for:
A. Uterine contractions
B. Maintaining corpus luteum
C. Milk production
D. Cervical dilation
Answer: B
Rationale: hCG sustains progesterone production early in pregnancy.
33. Prenatal Assessment
Fundal height at 20 weeks is approximately:
A. At pubic symphysis
B. At umbilicus
C. Above ribs
D. Below pelvis
Answer: B
Rationale: Fundal height reaches the umbilicus at ~20 weeks.
34. Screening
Which test confirms rupture of membranes?
A. NST
B. Nitrazine test
C. CBC
D. Ultrasound
Answer: B
Rationale: Nitrazine paper detects alkaline amniotic fluid.
35. Intrapartum Care
A prolonged latent phase is most commonly caused by:
A. Strong contractions
B. Cephalopelvic disproportion
C. Ineffective uterine contractions
D. Fetal distress
Answer: C
Rationale: Weak or uncoordinated contractions delay progress.
36. Labor Monitoring
Early decelerations are caused by:
A. Hypoxia
B. Head compression
C. Cord compression
D. Placental failure
Answer: B
Rationale: Benign pattern due to fetal head pressure.
37. Delivery
Shoulder dystocia is best managed initially by:
A. Immediate cesarean
B. McRoberts maneuver
C. Fundal pressure
D. Forceps
Answer: B
Rationale: McRoberts position widens the pelvis and is first-line.
38. Pain Management
Epidural anesthesia primarily blocks:
A. Motor nerves only
B. Sensory nerves
C. Hormones
D. Circulation
Answer: B
Rationale: Epidurals reduce pain by blocking sensory transmission.
39. Postpartum
A boggy uterus indicates:
A. Normal involution
B. Uterine atony
C. Infection
D. Dehydration
Answer: B
Rationale: Atony is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
40. Newborn Care
A newborn with a heart rate below 100 bpm requires:
A. Observation
B. Immediate resuscitation
C. Feeding
D. Bathing
Answer: B
Rationale: HR <100 bpm indicates need for intervention.
41. Breastfeeding
Correct latch prevents:
A. Milk production
B. Nipple trauma
C. Infant weight gain
D. Hormone release
Answer: B
Rationale: Poor latch leads to pain and ineffective feeding.
42. Infection
TORCH infections include all EXCEPT:
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Rubella
C. HIV
D. Herpes
Answer: C
Rationale: TORCH excludes HIV (separate category).
43. Complications
Abruptio placentae presents with:
A. Painless bleeding
B. Painful bleeding
C. No bleeding
D. Fever
Answer: B
Rationale: It involves painful bleeding and uterine tenderness.
44. Emergency
Eclampsia is characterized by:
A. Hypertension only
B. Seizures in pregnancy
C. Bleeding
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It is severe preeclampsia with seizures.
45. Newborn
Meconium-stained fluid indicates risk of:
A. Infection
B. Aspiration
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Jaundice
Answer: B
Rationale: Meconium aspiration can impair breathing.
46. Pharmacology
Terbutaline is used to:
A. Induce labor
B. Stop preterm contractions
C. Reduce bleeding
D. Treat infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It relaxes uterine smooth muscle.
47. Labor
Transition phase occurs at:
A. 0–2 cm
B. 3–4 cm
C. 8–10 cm
D. After delivery
Answer: C
Rationale: Most intense phase before full dilation.
48. Fetal Position
Occiput posterior position often leads to:
A. Short labor
B. Back labor pain
C. Breech
D. No complications
Answer: B
Rationale: OP position causes increased back discomfort.
49. Ethics
Autonomy means:
A. Provider decision-making
B. Patient self-determination
C. Legal compliance
D. Hospital rules
Answer: B
Rationale: Patients have the right to make informed choices.
50. Postpartum
Endometritis presents with:
A. Fever and foul discharge
B. Normal bleeding
C. No symptoms
D. Low BP
Answer: A
Rationale: Infection signs include fever and odor.
51. Newborn
Normal newborn temperature:
A. 34°C
B. 36.5–37.5°C
C. 38.5°C
D. 39°C
Answer: B
Rationale: Normal thermoregulation range.
52. Screening
Biophysical profile assesses:
A. Maternal health
B. Fetal well-being
C. Placenta only
D. Labor progress
Answer: B
Rationale: Includes movement, tone, breathing, fluid.
53. Labor
Uterine tachysystole is defined as:
A. <3 contractions/10 min
B. >5 contractions/10 min
C. No contractions
D. Weak contractions
Answer: B
Rationale: Excessive contractions may compromise fetal oxygenation.
54. Complications
Gestational hypertension occurs after:
A. 10 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. Delivery
D. Postpartum
Answer: B
Rationale: Diagnosed after mid-pregnancy without proteinuria.
55. Pharmacology
Rho(D) immune globulin is given to:
A. Rh-positive mothers
B. Rh-negative mothers
C. All mothers
D. Newborns
Answer: B
Rationale: Prevents sensitization in Rh-negative mothers.
56. Newborn
Jaundice in newborns is due to:
A. Low glucose
B. High bilirubin
C. Infection
D. Low oxygen
Answer: B
Rationale: Immature liver causes bilirubin buildup.
57. Postpartum
Normal lochia progression is:
A. Alba → rubra → serosa
B. Rubra → serosa → alba
C. Serosa → alba → rubra
D. No pattern
Answer: B
Rationale: Color changes reflect healing stages.
58. Infection
Chorioamnionitis is infection of:
A. Uterine muscle
B. Fetal membranes
C. Placenta only
D. Cervix
Answer: B
Rationale: Infection of amniotic sac and membranes.
59. Labor
Station 0 indicates:
A. Head above pelvis
B. Head at ischial spines
C. Head crowning
D. Delivery
Answer: B
Rationale: Engagement occurs at ischial spines.
60. Professional Practice
Scope of practice ensures:
A. Unlimited actions
B. Safe, regulated care
C. Faster delivery
D. Lower cost
Answer: B
Rationale: Defines safe boundaries for professional care.
61. Prenatal Care
A client at 28 weeks has a hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Normal pregnancy change
B. Iron-deficiency anemia
C. Preeclampsia
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: Hemoglobin <11 g/dL in pregnancy indicates anemia, most commonly iron deficiency.
62. Physiology
Which hormone is primarily responsible for milk ejection (let-down reflex)?
A. Prolactin
B. Oxytocin
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
Answer: B
Rationale: Oxytocin triggers milk ejection, while prolactin stimulates milk production.
63. Prenatal Assessment
Quickening is typically felt at:
A. 8 weeks
B. 12 weeks
C. 16–20 weeks
D. 28 weeks
Answer: C
Rationale: First fetal movements are usually felt between 16–20 weeks.
64. Screening
Which condition is screened using maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)?
A. Diabetes
B. Neural tube defects
C. Hypertension
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated AFP suggests neural tube defects like spina bifida.
65. Intrapartum Care
A prolonged second stage of labor increases risk of:
A. Rapid delivery
B. Maternal exhaustion
C. Decreased bleeding
D. Short labor
Answer: B
Rationale: Extended pushing leads to fatigue and complications.
66. Labor Monitoring
Sinusoidal fetal heart rate pattern indicates:
A. Normal tracing
B. Severe fetal anemia or hypoxia
C. Head compression
D. Cord compression
Answer: B
Rationale: A sinusoidal pattern is a serious, ominous sign.
67. Delivery
The maneuver used to deliver the posterior shoulder is:
A. McRoberts
B. Gentle downward traction
C. Fundal pressure
D. Cesarean
Answer: B
Rationale: After anterior shoulder delivery, gentle traction delivers the posterior shoulder.
68. Pain Management
Nitrous oxide provides:
A. Complete anesthesia
B. Mild analgesia and anxiolysis
C. Uterine relaxation
D. Sedation only
Answer: B
Rationale: It reduces anxiety and pain perception without full anesthesia.
69. Postpartum
Normal uterine position immediately after birth is:
A. Above umbilicus
B. At umbilicus
C. Below pelvis
D. Lateral
Answer: B
Rationale: Fundus is typically at or near the umbilicus right after delivery.
70. Newborn Care
A newborn with central cyanosis requires:
A. Routine care
B. Immediate evaluation
C. Feeding
D. Bathing
Answer: B
Rationale: Central cyanosis suggests inadequate oxygenation.
71. Breastfeeding
Prolactin levels are highest during:
A. Pregnancy only
B. Nighttime feeding
C. Delivery
D. Weaning
Answer: B
Rationale: Night feeds stimulate higher prolactin secretion.
72. Infection
Which infection is associated with “blueberry muffin” rash in newborns?
A. Rubella
B. HIV
C. Hepatitis
D. Syphilis
Answer: A
Rationale: Congenital rubella causes this characteristic rash.
73. Complications
Amniotic fluid embolism presents with:
A. Mild symptoms
B. Sudden respiratory distress and collapse
C. Fever
D. Bleeding only
Answer: B
Rationale: It is a rare but life-threatening emergency.
74. Emergency
Initial management of neonatal apnea includes:
A. Observation
B. Stimulation
C. Feeding
D. Bathing
Answer: B
Rationale: Gentle stimulation often initiates breathing.
75. Newborn
The Moro reflex disappears by:
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
Answer: C
Rationale: Primitive reflexes fade as the nervous system matures.
76. Pharmacology
Indomethacin is used to:
A. Induce labor
B. Delay preterm labor
C. Increase contractions
D. Treat infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It inhibits prostaglandins to suppress contractions.
77. Labor
Effacement refers to:
A. Cervical dilation
B. Cervical thinning
C. Fetal descent
D. Placental separation
Answer: B
Rationale: Effacement is the thinning of the cervix.
78. Fetal Position
Breech presentation increases risk of:
A. Easy delivery
B. Cord prolapse
C. Short labor
D. No complications
Answer: B
Rationale: Cord prolapse is more likely with malpresentation.
79. Ethics
Beneficence means:
A. Do no harm
B. Promote patient well-being
C. Respect autonomy
D. Follow law
Answer: B
Rationale: Beneficence focuses on acting in the patient’s best interest.
80. Postpartum
Subinvolution of uterus may cause:
A. Reduced bleeding
B. Prolonged bleeding
C. Fever only
D. Pain only
Answer: B
Rationale: Delayed uterine shrinkage leads to continued bleeding.
81. Newborn
Normal newborn blood glucose is approximately:
A. <20 mg/dL
B. 40–60 mg/dL
C. 80–100 mg/dL
D. >120 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Newborn glucose is lower than adults but should stay above ~40.
82. Screening
Non-stress test (NST) evaluates:
A. Maternal health
B. Fetal heart rate response
C. Placental size
D. Uterine size
Answer: B
Rationale: NST assesses fetal well-being via heart rate accelerations.
83. Labor
True labor contractions are:
A. Irregular and painless
B. Regular and progressive
C. Decreasing
D. Only at night
Answer: B
Rationale: True labor shows increasing intensity and frequency.
84. Complications
Oligohydramnios refers to:
A. Excess fluid
B. Low amniotic fluid
C. Infection
D. Bleeding
Answer: B
Rationale: Low fluid can affect fetal development.
85. Pharmacology
Which drug is used to control postpartum hemorrhage?
A. Insulin
B. Oxytocin
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Antibiotics
Answer: B
Rationale: Oxytocin promotes uterine contraction.
86. Newborn
Lanugo is:
A. Skin rash
B. Fine body hair
C. Infection
D. Fat layer
Answer: B
Rationale: Temporary hair covering newborn skin.
87. Postpartum
Afterpains are caused by:
A. Infection
B. Uterine contractions
C. Hormones only
D. Bleeding
Answer: B
Rationale: Uterine contractions help involution.
88. Infection
Which infection can cause congenital deafness?
A. Rubella
B. Influenza
C. Malaria
D. Tuberculosis
Answer: A
Rationale: Rubella is a known cause of hearing loss.
89. Labor
Crowning occurs when:
A. Head enters pelvis
B. Head remains visible
C. Baby is delivered
D. Placenta delivered
Answer: B
Rationale: The head stays visible without retracting.
90. Professional Practice
Continuing education ensures:
A. Reduced workload
B. Updated clinical knowledge
C. Higher cost
D. Faster delivery
Answer: B
Rationale: Ongoing learning maintains competency and safety.
91. Prenatal Care
A pregnant client reports unilateral leg swelling and pain. What is the priority concern?
A. Normal edema
B. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
C. Dehydration
D. Muscle strain
Answer: B
Rationale: Unilateral swelling and pain suggest DVT, a serious pregnancy complication.
92. Physiology
Which cardiovascular change occurs during pregnancy?
A. Decreased blood volume
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Decreased heart rate
D. Reduced circulation
Answer: B
Rationale: Cardiac output increases to support fetal needs.
93. Prenatal Assessment
Leopold maneuvers are used to determine:
A. Maternal BP
B. Fetal position and presentation
C. Placental location
D. Cervical dilation
Answer: B
Rationale: They assess fetal lie, presentation, and position.
94. Screening
Which test is used to assess fetal lung maturity?
A. NST
B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
C. CBC
D. Ultrasound
Answer: B
Rationale: L/S ratio indicates surfactant production.
95. Intrapartum Care
A sudden drop in fetal heart rate with cord prolapse requires:
A. Observation
B. Immediate intervention
C. Feeding
D. Delayed care
Answer: B
Rationale: Cord prolapse is an emergency requiring rapid action.
96. Labor Monitoring
Category III fetal heart tracing indicates:
A. Normal
B. Indeterminate
C. Abnormal requiring intervention
D. Early labor
Answer: C
Rationale: Category III suggests fetal distress.
97. Delivery
Episiotomy is performed to:
A. Reduce contractions
B. Enlarge vaginal opening
C. Stop bleeding
D. Deliver placenta
Answer: B
Rationale: It facilitates delivery in specific cases.
98. Pain Management
Contraindication to epidural includes:
A. Hypertension
B. Coagulopathy
C. Labor pain
D. Anxiety
Answer: B
Rationale: Bleeding disorders increase risk of complications.
99. Postpartum
Lochia serosa appears:
A. Bright red
B. Pink/brown
C. White
D. Green
Answer: B
Rationale: It follows lochia rubra in normal progression.
100. Newborn Care
Apgar score is assessed at:
A. Birth only
B. 1 and 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes only
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B
Rationale: Standard timing evaluates adaptation.
101. Breastfeeding
Engorgement is best relieved by:
A. Avoid feeding
B. Frequent feeding
C. Ice only
D. Medication only
Answer: B
Rationale: Regular feeding reduces breast fullness.
102. Infection
Which infection requires isolation precautions in newborns?
A. Rubella
B. Common cold
C. Flu
D. Mild fever
Answer: A
Rationale: Congenital infections require strict precautions.
103. Complications
Polyhydramnios is associated with:
A. Low fluid
B. Excess amniotic fluid
C. Infection
D. Bleeding
Answer: B
Rationale: It indicates excessive fluid volume.
104. Emergency
First-line treatment for neonatal hypoglycemia:
A. Insulin
B. Feeding or glucose
C. Oxygen
D. Antibiotics
Answer: B
Rationale: Feeding or glucose stabilizes levels.
105. Newborn
Caput succedaneum is:
A. Skull fracture
B. Scalp swelling
C. Brain injury
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It is benign swelling from pressure during birth.
106. Pharmacology
Methylergometrine is used to:
A. Induce labor
B. Control postpartum hemorrhage
C. Reduce pain
D. Treat infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It causes uterine contraction to reduce bleeding.
107. Labor
Fetal station +3 indicates:
A. High in pelvis
B. At ischial spines
C. Near delivery
D. Not engaged
Answer: C
Rationale: Positive stations indicate descent toward delivery.
108. Fetal Position
Transverse lie requires:
A. Vaginal delivery
B. Cesarean delivery
C. No intervention
D. Forceps
Answer: B
Rationale: Vaginal delivery is unsafe in transverse lie.
109. Ethics
Non-maleficence means:
A. Promote good
B. Do no harm
C. Respect autonomy
D. Justice
Answer: B
Rationale: Avoid causing harm to patients.
110. Postpartum
Postpartum depression differs from baby blues by:
A. Short duration
B. Severe symptoms
C. No symptoms
D. Immediate recovery
Answer: B
Rationale: It is more severe and long-lasting.
111. Newborn
Normal newborn heart rate:
A. 60–80 bpm
B. 100–160 bpm
C. 180–220 bpm
D. 40–60 bpm
Answer: B
Rationale: Normal neonatal HR is higher than adults.
112. Screening
Amniocentesis is used to detect:
A. Blood pressure
B. Genetic abnormalities
C. Labor progress
D. Infection only
Answer: B
Rationale: It analyzes fetal cells for genetic conditions.
113. Labor
Braxton Hicks contractions are:
A. Regular and painful
B. Irregular and painless
C. Progressive
D. Strong
Answer: B
Rationale: They are false labor contractions.
114. Complications
Gestational diabetes increases risk of:
A. Low birth weight
B. Macrosomia
C. Prematurity only
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: High glucose leads to larger babies.
115. Pharmacology
Betamethasone is given to:
A. Induce labor
B. Enhance fetal lung maturity
C. Reduce pain
D. Treat infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It accelerates surfactant production.
116. Newborn
Cephalhematoma differs from caput by:
A. Crossing sutures
B. Not crossing sutures
C. Being painless
D. No swelling
Answer: B
Rationale: Cephalhematoma is confined within sutures.
117. Postpartum
Normal postpartum pulse is:
A. Elevated
B. Slightly decreased
C. Irregular
D. Very high
Answer: B
Rationale: Pulse may be slightly slower after birth.
118. Infection
Which infection is prevented by vaccination during pregnancy?
A. Rubella
B. Tetanus
C. HIV
D. Hepatitis C
Answer: B
Rationale: Tdap protects mother and newborn.
119. Labor
Amniotic fluid that is green suggests:
A. Infection
B. Meconium
C. Blood
D. Normal
Answer: B
Rationale: Green fluid indicates fetal stool passage.
120. Professional Practice
Documentation is essential for:
A. Billing only
B. Legal and clinical record
C. Speed
D. Communication only
Answer: B
Rationale: Accurate records support care and legal protection.